*OLODE 01 Session 2025* *📅 23rd January 2025* *Air Regulations ✈️* 1. Minimum age for CPL qualification. 2. An aircraft flying from left to right—what light will you see? 3. How is a runway number determined? (Based on compass, magnetic, etc.) 4. Full form of PANS. 5. What actions to take in turbulence? (Maintain airspeed, etc.) 6. IMC radio failure—correct procedures. 7. Code abbreviations-related question. 8. What color are threshold lights? (Green, blue, etc.) 9. Pilot feels dizzy or tingling in hands during descent in bad weather—what might be the cause? 10. How Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) varies (same for everyone, depends on individual, cabin pressure, etc.) 11. Actions to take in case of barotrauma. 12. Who is responsible for terrain separation under ATC control? ATC only Pilot Both ATC and pilot 13. Question related to hemoglobin. 14. Question about hyperventilation. 15. Question about ear blockage. 16. Level of English proficiency (ELP) required and renewal frequency. 17. IMC and VMC total communication failure—what should you do? 18. Effect of carbon monoxide on the body. 19. Squawk code for communication failure. 20. Minimum vertical separation in RVSM airspace if both aircraft are RVSM certified. 21. ICAO Doc 4444 pertains to: a) Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Air Traffic Management b) ... c) Aircraft Operations 22. In Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR), aircraft operations fall under: a) Section 3 b) Section 7 c) Section 8 23. If an aircraft does not land within ____ minutes, ETA must be revised to ATC: a) 3 minutes b) 5 minutes c) 10 minutes 24. A flashing red light directed at an aircraft by ATC indicates: a) Land immediately b) Stop c) Return to the previous altitude 25. During final approach, if you feel anxious, you should: a) Control your breathing b) Increase speed c) Change altitude 26. SSR code for radio communication failure: a) 7700 b) 7500 c) 7600 27. In the event of VMC radio failure, should you land or continue your flight plan? a) Land b) Continue flight plan 28. A pilot experiencing sickness must report to DGCA within: a) 10 days b) 15 days c) 30 days 29. ELP (English Language Proficiency) question regarding level and validity: a) Level 3, validity 2 years b) Level 4, validity 3 years c) Level 5, validity 1 year 30. Hemoglobin is found in: a) White blood cells b) Plasma c) Red blood cells 31. Pilot indicates to the marshaller: a) Brakes engaged b) Brakes released c) Ready for takeoff 32. Unknown question related to maximum mass ratio: a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4 33. Facilities provided by: a) AIC b) AIP c) NOTAMs 34. Color of runway threshold lights: a) Blue b) Green c) Red 35. Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC) in the primary area of intermediate approach: a) 120 m b) 150 m c) 180 m 36. When is "Heavy" added to call signs in radio communication? a) Aircraft weight ≥ 136,000 kg b) Aircraft weight ≥ 10,000 kg c) Aircraft weight ≥ 76,000 kg 37. IFR clearance expires at 0920. This means: a) If not airborne by 0920, a new clearance is required. b) Takeoff clearance is expected at 0920. c) After 0920, return to the ramp and file a new flight plan. 38. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises "Resume own navigation." This means: a) Radar services are terminated; provide position reports. b) Take responsibility for your navigation. c) Contact the center at the next reporting point. 39. Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) around an RNAV facility is valid within: a) 25 NM b) 30 NM c) 10 NM 40. Readability Scale Level 3: a) Readable but with difficulty b) Readable now and then c) Perfectly readable 41. ATIS broadcasts are updated: a) Upon receipt of official weather updates, regardless of changes. b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below VFR; otherwise, hourly. c) Only when significant weather changes occur. 42. Runway designation is based on: a) True North b) Magnetic North c) Compass North