NURSING JOB UPDATE @nursingjobupdate Which of the following is the primary mode of HIV transmission in adults? - a) Blood transfusion - b) Sexual contact - c) Sharing needles - d) Mother-to-child transmission *Explanation:* The primary mode of HIV transmission in adults is through sexual contact (b). While other modes like blood transfusion and sharing needles are also significant, sexual transmission accounts for the majority of cases. Which opportunistic infection is most commonly associated with AIDS? - a) Tuberculosis - b) Malaria - c) Influenza - d) Cholera:* Tuberculosis (a) is one of the most common opportunistic infections associated with AIDS due to the compromised immune system. What is the significance of the "window period" in HIV testing? - a) Period of maximum infectivity - b) Period of vaccine administration - c) Time between initial infection and detectable antibodies - d) Time between treatment and cure *Explanation:* The "window period" (c) refers to the time between initial HIV infection and the point when antibodies become detectable by a test. Which co-infection can accelerate the progression of HIV disease and increase mortality? - a) Hepatitis B & c - b) Influenza - c) Syphilis - d) Epstein-Barr virus *Explanation:* Co-infection with Hepatitis B (a) can accelerate the progression of HIV disease and increase mortality. Which laboratory marker is used to monitor the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy? - a) Viral load - b) Hemoglobin level - c) White blood cell count - d) Platelet count *Explanation:* Viral load (a) is the primary marker used to monitor the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy, aiming to reduce it to undetectable levels. Which HIV associated with a slower disease progression? - a) HIV-1 - b) HIV-2 - c) Both HIV-1 and HIV-2 - d) Neither *Explanation:* HIV-2 (b) is associated with a slower disease progression compared to HIV-1. Which HIV protein is targeted by entry inhibitors? - a) gp120 - b) p24 - c) gp41 - d) p17 *Explanation:* Entry inhibitors target the gp41 protein (c) of HIV, preventing the fusion of the viral envelope with the host cell membrane. What is the significance of a high viral load in an HIV-positive patient? - a) Effective antiretroviral therapy - b) Low risk of transmission - c) Poor prognosis - d) Long-term HIV control *Explanation:* A high viral load (c) indicates a poor prognosis and a high level of active replication of the virus. Which of the following is NOT an AIDS-defining condition? - a) Pneumocystis pneumonia - b) Toxoplasmosis of the brain - c) Candidiasis of the esophagus - d) Streptococcal pneumonia *Explanation:* Streptococcal pneumonia (d) is not an AIDS-defining condition, whereas Pneumocystis pneumonia, toxoplasmosis of the brain, and candidiasis of the esophagus are. Which of the following is used as post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV? - a) Zidovudine + Lamivudine - b) Amoxicillin + Clavulanate - c) Acyclovir + Valacyclovir - d) Doxycycline + Azithromycin *Explanation:* Zidovudine + Lamivudine (a) is used as post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV to prevent seroconversion after potential exposure. Which type of cell is the primary target of HIV? - a) B lymphocytes - b) CD4+ T lymphocytes - c) Macrophages - d) Neutrophils *Explanation:* CD4+ T lymphocytes (b) are the primary target of HIV, leading to immunosuppression. Which HIV protein is involved in the integration of viral DNA into the host genome? - a) Reverse transcriptase - b) Integrase - c) Protease - d) gp120 *Explanation:* Integrase (b) is the enzyme responsible for integrating viral DNA into the host genome. Which of the following tests is used to detect HIV in newborns? - a) ELISA - b) Western blot - c) RNA PCR - d) CD4 cell count *Explanation:* PCR (c) is used to detect HIV in newborns, as it can directly identify viral RNA or DNA, whereas antibody tests like ELISA are not reliable in this age group. Which of the following is a significant risk factor for acquiring HIV infection? - a) Unprotected sexual intercourse - b) Sharing personal items like razors - c) Casual contact with an HIV-positive person - d) Insect bites *Explanation:* Unprotected sexual intercourse (a) is a significant risk factor for acquiring HIV infection. Casual contact and insect bites do not transmit HIV. Which drug is commonly used in pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention? - a) Zidovudine - b) Tenofovir - c) Lamivudine - d) Efavirenz *Explanation:* Tenofovir (b), often in combination with emtricitabine, is commonly used in pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention. Which of the following statements about HIV-1 and HIV-2 is true? - a) HIV-2 is more virulent than HIV-1 - b) HIV-1 is more common globally than HIV-2 - c) HIV-2 is associated with rapid disease progression - d) HIV-1 and HIV-2 are equally prevalent *Explanation:* HIV-1 is more common globally than HIV-2 (b). HIV-2 is generally associated with slower disease progression. Which of the following is a common indicator of acute HIV disease progression to AIDS? - a) Increased CD4 cell count - b) Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy - c) Severe weight gain - d) Hypertension *Explanation:* Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (b) is a common indicator of HIV disease progression to AIDS. Which of the following is a key component of the NACP's strategy to reduce HIV-related stigma and discrimination? - a) Conducting awareness campaigns - b) Providing ART to all HIV-positive individuals - c) Developing new HIV vaccines - d) Increasing the number of HIV testing centers *Explanation:* Conducting awareness campaigns (a) is a key component of the NACP's strategy to reduce HIV-related stigma and discrimination. Which of the following is a key strategy under NACP to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV? - a) Providing ART to pregnant women - b) Promoting breastfeeding - c) Conducting awareness campaigns - d) Distributing condoms *Explanation:* Providing ART to pregnant women (a) is a key strategy under NACP to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. Which of the following is a common side effect of Tenofovir? - a) Hepatotoxicity - b) Nephrotoxicity - c) Neurotoxicity - d) Cardiotoxicity *Explanation:* Nephrotoxicity (b) is a common side effect of Tenofovir, a medication used in HIV treatment. What is the primary goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV-infected children? - A) Cure HIV infection - B) Suppress viral load and maintain immune function - C) Reduce the need for vaccinations - D) Ensure normal growth and development Answer: B) Suppress viral load and maintain immune function Explanation: The primary goal of ART in HIV-infected children is to suppress the viral load to undetectable levels and maintain immune function, which helps prevent opportunistic infections and promotes overall health. Which of the following statements is true regarding the timing of initiating ART in HIV-infected children? - A) ART should only be started after symptoms appear - B) ART should be initiated as early as possible regardless of clinical symptoms - C) ART should be delayed until CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mm³ - D) ART should be initiated only if there are signs of opportunistic infections Answer: B) ART should be initiated as early as possible regardless of clinical symptoms Explanation: Initiating ART as early as possible in HIV-infected children, regardless of clinical symptoms, helps achieve better long-term health outcomes, reduces the risk of disease progression, and prevents the development of opportunistic infections. What is the preferred ART regimen for infants under 3 years of age? - A) Zidovudine, lamivudine, and lopinavir/ritonavir - B) Tenofovir, lamivudine, and efavirenz - C) Stavudine, didanosine, and nevirapine - D) Abacavir, lamivudine, and raltegravir Answer: A) Zidovudine, lamivudine, and lopinavir/ritonavir Explanation: For infants under 3 years of age, the preferred ART regimen is a combination of zidovudine, lamivudine, and lopinavir/ritonavir, which has been shown to be safe and effective in this age group. Which laboratory test is most important for monitoring the effectiveness of ART in adults with HIV? - A) Complete blood count (CBC) - B) Liver function tests (LFTs) - C) Viral load test - D) CD4 count Answer: C) Viral load test Explanation: The viral load test measures the amount of HIV RNA in the blood and is the most important test for monitoring the effectiveness of ART. A declining or undetectable viral load indicates successful treatment. Which of the following actions can reduce the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child during childbirth? - A) Exclusive breastfeeding - B) Initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART) during labor - C) Delivery by cesarean section (C-section) - D) Using formula feeding exclusively Answer: C) Delivery by cesarean section (C-section) Explanation: Delivery by cesarean section (C-section) can reduce the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child during childbirth, especially if the mother’s viral load is not well controlled. What is the primary goal of Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) in HIV prevention? - A) To treat HIV-infected individuals - B) To prevent HIV infection after potential exposure - C) To cure HIV - D) To increase immunity against HIV Answer: B) To prevent HIV infection after potential exposure Explanation: Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) involves taking antiretroviral medications after potential exposure to HIV to prevent infection. It is most effective when started within 72 hours of exposure. At what age should antiretroviral prophylaxis be initiated in newborns exposed to HIV? - A) At Birth - B) At 1 month of age - C) At 6 months of age - D) After confirmation of HIV infection Answer: A) at birth Explanation: Antiretroviral prophylaxis should be initiated within 24 hours of birth for newborns exposed to HIV to reduce the risk of perinatal transmission. What is the preferred first-line antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen for HIV-infected adults? - A) Zidovudine, lamivudine, and efavirenz - B) Tenofovir, lamivudine, and dolutegravir - C) Stavudine, didanosine, and nevirapine - D) No treatment until CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mm³ Answer: B) Tenofovir, lamivudine, and dolutegravir Explanation: The preferred first-line ART regimen for HIV-infected adults is a fixed-dose combination of tenofovir, lamivudine, and dolutegravir. Which of the following actions can reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV during childbirth? - A) Stopping antiretroviral therapy (ART) during labor - B) Scheduled cesarean delivery - C) Exclusively breastfeeding the baby - D) Delaying ART until after delivery Answer: B) Scheduled cesarean delivery Explanation: A scheduled cesarean delivery can reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV during childbirth, especially if the mother’s viral load is not well controlled. Which antiretroviral (ARV) regimen is recommended for newborns exposed to HIV? - A) Zidovudine (AZT) alone - B) Nevirapine (NVP) alone - C) A combination of Zidovudine (AZT) and Lamivudine (3TC) - D) A combination of Zidovudine (AZT), Lamivudine (3TC), and Nevirapine (NVP) - Answer: D - Explanation: Newborns exposed to HIV are typically given a combination of ARVs to reduce the risk of transmission. The combination of Zidovudine, Lamivudine, and Nevirapine is commonly used. What is the duration of ARV prophylaxis for newborns exposed to HIV? - A) 2 weeks - B) 4 weeks - C) 6 weeks - D) 8 weeks - Answer: C - Explanation: The standard duration for ARV prophylaxis in newborns is 6 weeks to ensure adequate protection against HIV transmission. What is the recommended duration of ARV treatment for HIV-positive pregnant women during labor? - A) 2 hours before delivery - B) 6 hours before delivery - C) As early as possible during labor - D) 12 hours before delivery - Answer: C - Explanation: ARV treatment should be initiated as early as possible during labor to maximize the reduction of HIV transmission risk to the newborn. Which ARV drug is included in the regimen to prevent mother-to-child transmission during breastfeeding? - A) Nevirapine (NVP) - B) Tenofovir (TDF) - C) Lamivudine (3TC) - D) Efavirenz (EFV) - Answer: A - Explanation: Nevirapine is included in the regimen to prevent mother-to-child transmission during breastfeeding due to its efficacy in reducing the risk of HIV transmission through breast milk. What is the recommended time frame for initiating PEP after a needle stick injury? - A. Within 72 hours - B. Within 24 hours - C. Within 1 week - D. Within 1 hour Answer: A. Within 72 hours Explanation: PEP should be initiated as soon as possible after a potential exposure to HIV, ideally within 72 hours. The earlier it is started, the more effective it is in preventing HIV infection. How long should post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) be taken after a potential HIV exposure from a needle stick injury? - A. 7 days - B. 14 days - C. 28 days - D. 3 months Answer: C. 28 days Explanation: PEP should be taken for a duration of 28 days (4 weeks) to be effective in reducing the risk of HIV infection following a potential exposure. Which body fluid is most likely to transmit HIV through a needle stick injury? - A. Saliva - B. Sweat - C. Blood, Breast Milk, - D. Tears Answer: C. Blood Explanation: Blood is the body fluid most likely to transmit HIV through a needle stick injury. HIV is present in high concentrations in blood, making it the primary vehicle for transmission in such injuries. What is the recommended follow-up testing schedule for healthcare workers after a needle stick injury involving potential HIV exposure? - A. 1 week, 1 month, and 3 months - B. 2 weeks, 6 weeks, and 6 months - C. 1 month, 3 months, and 6 months - D. 3 weeks, 9 weeks, and 12 months Answer: C. 1 month, 3 months, and 6 months Explanation: The recommended follow-up testing schedule for healthcare workers after a needle stick injury involving potential HIV exposure is at 1 month, 3 months, and 6 months. This helps to ensure that any HIV infection is detected early and managed appropriately. How long is the recommended duration for PEP after a potential HIV exposure due to a needle stick injury? - A. 7 days - B. 14 days - C. 28 days - D. 6 months Answer: C. 28 days Explanation: The recommended duration for PEP is 28 days. This course of antiviral medications helps to reduce the risk of HIV infection following a potential exposure. Which of the following statements about post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is TRUE? - A. PEP can be started at any time after exposure - B. PEP is only effective if started within 72 hours of exposure - C. PEP should be taken for 7 days - D. PEP has no side effects Answer: B. PEP is only effective if started within 72 hours of exposure Explanation: PEP must be started within 72 hours of exposure to be effective. Starting PEP after this window significantly reduces its effectiveness in preventing HIV infection. What does the U=U campaign in HIV/AIDS education emphasize? - A. Uninfected equals untransmittable - B. Undetectable equals untransmittable - C. Unmonitored equals untransmittable - D. Untraceable equals untransmittable Answer: B. Undetectable equals untransmittable Explanation: The U=U campaign emphasizes that individuals with an undetectable viral load of HIV due to effective treatment cannot transmit the virus to others. This is a significant message in HIV prevention and stigma reduction. How often should a person living with HIV get their viral load tested to ensure it remains undetectable? - A. Every month - B. Every 3 to 6 months - C. Every year - D. Every 5 years Answer: B. Every 3 to 6 months Explanation: People living with HIV should have their viral load tested every 3 to 6 months to ensure it remains undetectable. Regular monitoring is essential for effective management of the virus.